Question 30: Consider the following statements:

1. Mariner 4 was the first spacecraft that undertook the first flyby of mars,
2. NASA successfully used steam to propel Equuleus Spacecraft toward the moon.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

• Mariner 4 (together with Mariner 3 known as Mariner-Mars 1964) was the fourth in a series of spacecraft intended for planetary exploration in a flyby mode.
• It was designed to conduct closeup scientific observations of Mars and to transmit these observations to Earth.
• Launched on November 28, 1964, Mariner 4 performed the first successful flyby of the planet Mars, returning the first close-up pictures of the Martian surface.
• It was the first spacecraft that undertook the first flyby of mars, becoming the first- ever spacecraft to take close-up photographs of another planet. It was a mission of NASA, launched in Its day of launch is commemorated as Red Planet Day.
• Recently, Japan’s space agency JAXA successfully used steam to propel Equuleus Spacecraft toward the moon. It was the world’s first successful orbit control beyond low-earth orbit using a water propellant propulsion system.
• Equuleus (EQUilibriUm Lunar-Earth point 6U) is a deep-space 6U spacecraft launched by NASA’s Orion Spacecraft. It aims to demonstrate low-energy trajectory control technologies by reaching to the Earth-Moon Lagrange point 2 (EML2).

Question 31: Consider the following statements with respect to Erra Matti Dibbalu:

1. Erra Matti Dibbalu also called as Red Sand Hills is situated in the state of Odisha.
2. Erra Matti Dibbalu was declared a geo-heritage site by the Geological Survey of India.
3. Only three places in the tropical regions in South Asia have such deposits.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

• Erra Matti Dibbalu also called as Red Sand Hills is situated at the outskirts of Visakhapatnam City.
• It has light yellow sand dunes at the top followed by a brick red sand unit, a reddish-brown concretion bearing sand unit with yellow sand at the bottom.
• They are fragile and vulnerable to natural degradation.
• It was declared a geo-heritage site by the Geological Survey of India (GSI) in 2014. Geo-heritage sites, also referred to as National Geological Monuments, are geological areas of scientific, cultural and educational value.

Significance of Erra Matti Dibbalu

• Help in studying climate change impact as it has seen both the glacial and warm periods.
• Site is about 18,500 to 20,000 years old and can be related to last glacial period.
• Rare occurrence, as such sand deposits do not occur in equatorial regions or temperate regions.
• Only three places in the tropical regions in South Asia have such deposits with Teri Sands of Tamil Nadu and a site in Sri Lanka.

Question 32: Consider the following statements:

1. The Agricultural Market Information System (AMIS) was set up by OECD to strengthen global food security.
2. Bringing together the principal trading countries of agricultural commodities, AMIS assesses global food supplies focusing on wheat, maize, rice and soyabeans.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

• The Agricultural Market Information System (AMIS), which was set up by G20 members to strengthen global food security, has warned another poor crop in Ukraine would mean global stocks would not recover for at least another year, ensuring prices remain high and markets volatile.
• The Agricultural Market Information System (AMIS) is an inter-agency platform to enhance food market transparency and policy response for food security.
• It was launched in 2011 by the G20 Ministers of Agriculture following the global food price hikes in 2007/08 and 2010.
• Bringing together the principal trading countries of agricultural commodities, AMIS assesses global food supplies (focusing on wheat, maize, rice and soybeans) and provides a platform to coordinate policy action in times of market uncertainly.

Question 33: Consider the following statements:

1. In a ‘narco’ or narcoanalysis test, a drug called sodium pentothal is injected into the body of the accused, which transports them to a hypnotic or sedated state, in which their imagination is neutralized.
2. A polygraph test is based on the assumption that physiological responses that are triggered when a person is lying are different from what they would be otherwise.
3. A polygraph test does not involve injecting drugs into the body.
4. These methods have a 100% success rate.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

• In a ‘narco’ or narcoanalysis test, a drug called sodium pentothal is injected into the body of the accused, which transports them to a hypnotic or sedated state, in which their imagination is neutralized. In this hypnotic state, the accused is understood as being incapable of lying, and is expected to divulge information that is true.
• A polygraph test is based on the assumption that physiological responses that are triggered when a person is lying are different from what they would be otherwise.
• A polygraph test does not involve injecting drugs into the body; rather instruments like cardio-cuffs or sensitive electrodes are attached to the suspect, and variables such as blood pressure, pulse rate, respiration, change in sweat gland activity, blood flow, , are measured as questions are put to them.
• A numerical value is assigned to each response to conclude whether the person is telling the truth, is deceiving, or is uncertain.
• In recent decades, investigating agencies have sought to employ these tests in investigation, which are sometimes seen as being a “softer alternative” to torture or “third degree” to extract the truth from suspects.
• However, neither method has been proven scientifically to have a 100% success rate and remain contentious in the medical field as well.
• In ‘Selvi & Ors vs State of Karnataka & Anr’ (2010), a Supreme Court Bench ruled that no lie detector tests should be administered “except on the basis of consent of the accused”.
• It said that the ‘Guidelines for the Administration of Polygraph Test on an Accused’ published by the National Human Rights Commission in 2000, must be strictly followed.
• The subject’s consent should be recorded before a judicial magistrate, the court said.

Question 34: Consider the following statements:

1. CDSL, or Central Depositories Services India Ltd, is a government-registered share depository.
2. Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialized form and are an enabler for securities transactions.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

What is CDSL?

• CDSL, or Central Depositories Services India Ltd, is a government-registered share depository, alongside its other state-owned counterpart National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL).
• Share depositories hold shares in an electronic or dematerialised form and are an enabler for securities transactions, playing a somewhat similar role to what banks play in handling cash and fixed deposits. While banks help customers keep their cash in electronic form, share depositories help consumers store shares in a dematerialised form.
• CDSL was founded in 1999. It is a Market Infrastructure Institution or MII that is deemed as a crucial part of the capital market structure, providing services to all market participants, including exchanges, clearing corporations, depository participants, issuers and investors.

Question 35: Consider the following statements:

1. CITES is an international agreement between governments to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
2. All import, export and re-export of species covered under CITES must be authorized through a permit system.
3. CITES Appendix I includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
4. The endangered Asian elephant was included in CITES Appendix I in 1975, which banned the export of ivory from the Asian range countries.
5. India amended the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 to ban the domestic sales of ivory.
6. India again amended the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 to ban the import of African ivory.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 6
2. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
4. 1, 2, 4 and 5

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

• CITES is an international agreement between governments — 184 at present — to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the species.
• The convention entered into force in 1975 and India became the 25th party — a state that voluntarily agrees to be bound by the Convention — in 1976.
• All import, export and re-export of species covered under CITES must be authorized through a permit system.
• CITES Appendix I lists species threatened with extinction — import or export permits for these are issued rarely and only if the purpose is not primarily commercial.
• CITES Appendix II includes species not necessarily threatened with extinction but in which trade must be strictly regulated.
• Every two years, the Conference of the Parties (CoP), the supreme decision-making body of CITES, applies a set of biological and trade criteria to evaluate proposals from parties to decide if a species should be in Appendix I or II.

India and ivory trade

• The endangered Asian elephant was included in CITES Appendix I in 1975, which banned the export of ivory from the Asian range countries.
• In 1986, India amended The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 to ban even domestic sales of ivory.
• After the ivory trade was globally banned, India again amended the law to ban the import of African ivory in 1991.

Question 36: Consider the following statements:

1. There is no express provision which bars associations with religious connotations to register as political parties under the Representation of the People Act-1951.
2. Recently, a Bill to amend the RP Act, 1951 to ban any association with names bearing religious connotations from registering as a political party was introduced.
3. The Election commission generally does not have the power to deregister political parties.
4. The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars parties from having symbols with religious or communal connotations.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

• The Election Commission recently told the Supreme Court that “there is no express provision which bars associations with religious connotations to register as political parties under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act-1951”.
• The petitioner, Syed Waseem Rizwi, argued that such names and symbols violated the Constitution, and that the EC should cancel their registration. Rizwi cited the Indian Union Muslim League, the All-India Majlis-e-Ittehadul Muslimeen, the Akhil Bharat Hindu Mahasabha, the Hindu Ekta Party, the Christian Democratic Front, the Indian Christian Secular Party and the Sehajdari Sikh Party as examples.
• A Bill to amend the RP Act, 1951 to ban any association with names bearing religious connotations from registering as a political party was introduced in 1994, but it was not passed and lapsed when the Lok Sabha was dissolved in 1996.
• Also, the EC generally does not have the power to deregister political parties, something which it has proposed as an electoral reform to the government many times.
• On the issue of symbols, the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 bars parties from having symbols with religious or communal connotations. While hearing the dispute between the two factions of the Shiv Sena in October, the ECI denied both of them the use of the ‘trishul’ (trident) symbol” due to its religious connotations.
• It is not clear how many of the political parties registered with the ECI would be considered to have religious connotations in their names, mainly because it was subject to interpretation.

Question 37: Consider the following statements:

1. India became the first country to deploy an all-women contingent to a UN Peacekeeping Mission.
2. India is the largest contributor of the personnel in Peacekeeping Operations.

Which of the following statements is/are true?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: A

Explanation

• India has been sending women personnel on UN Peacekeeping Missions. In 2007, India became the first country to deploy an all-women contingent to a UN Peacekeeping Mission.
• As of June 2022, 120 countries were contributing a total of 74,892 personnel in Peacekeeping Operations, with Bangladesh leading the tally (6,700), followed by India (5,832) and Nepal (5,794).