Ans: (a)

Explanation

Statement I is correct: The Sahel region, which includes countries like Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger, and Chad, has been facing a worsening security situation in recent years. This instability is driven by the rise of violent extremist groups

Statement II is correct: The instability in the Sahel has also led to a series of military coups in several countries in the region, for example, there have been military takeovers in Mali, Chad, Guinea, and Burkina Faso in recent years. These coups are a direct consequence of the worsening security situation, as the military has often stepped in to take control in response to the inability of civilian governments to address the security challenges

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect: India imports apples from the United States. The import of apples from the US has been significant in the past, with the country being one of the major apple exporters to India. However, the import volume had decreased significantly due to the imposition of retaliatory tariffs by India in 2019.

Statement II is correct: India has regulations in place regarding the import of Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) including food and agricultural products. The import of GMOs requires approval from the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 94(c) of the Indian Constitution and Rule 179 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, when a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker shall not preside over the House.

Statement 2 is incorrect: He/She shall not have the right to speak: The Speaker retains the right to speak and defend themselves against the charges.

Statement 3 is incorrect: He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance: The Speaker is entitled to vote on the resolution but only in the case of a tie, as per the general practice of voting rights of the Speaker in the Lok Sabha.

Answer: ( b)

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The prorogation of a House by the President of India requires the advice of the Council of Ministers. According to Article 74 of the Indian Constitution, the President shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. Therefore, the President cannot unilaterally prorogue a House without this advice.

Statement 2 is correct: Prorogation is typically done after the House is adjourned sine die, but the President can prorogue the House while it is in session. Article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution allows the President to prorogue either House of Parliament at any time, irrespective of whether the House is adjourned sine die or still in session.

Statement 3 is correct: The dissolution of the Lok Sabha is usually done by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Article 85(2)(b) of the Constitution states that the Lok Sabha shall be dissolved by the President. This action is generally taken on the advice of the Council of Ministers, reflecting the practice in a parliamentary democracy. In exceptional circumstances, such as a political crisis or no-confidence motion, the President may act without such advice, exercising discretion to ensure proper governance.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Statement I is correct:

Statement-II is correct: "The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time."

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect: Venezuela has been facing a severe economic crisis characterized by hyperinflation, economic contraction, shortages of basic goods, and political instability. This crisis has led to a significant emigration of people fleeing the country in search of better economic opportunities and living conditions. There has been no recent rapid recovery that would prevent emigration.

Statement is correct: Venezuela is known to have the largest proven oil reserves in the world, surpassing even Saudi Arabia's reserves. Oil has historically been a major source of revenue for Venezuela's economy

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP) is a scheme where the central government provides 100% funding to the states and Union Territories (UTs) for implementation. The funding covers activities such as computerization of land records, digitization of cadastral maps, survey/re-survey, computerization of registration, etc.

Statement II is correct: One of the key objectives of the DILRMP is to digitize cadastral maps. Cadastral maps are detailed maps showing the boundaries of land parcels, which are crucial for land administration and management.

Statement 3 is correct: As part of the DILRMP, efforts have been made to standardize and digitize Records of Rights (RoR) and other land records, including transliterating them from local languages to languages recognized by the Constitution of India. This facilitates easier access and understanding of land records by stakeholders.

Ans: (b)

Explanation Statement 1 is incorrect: The Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) aims to provide free antenatal care services to pregnant women on the 9th of every month. It focuses on providing quality antenatal check-ups to pregnant women in their second and third trimesters. However, it does not guarantee six months of post-delivery health care service in any government health facility. Post-delivery care is not part of the PMSMA's primary objectives.

Statement 2 is correct: The PMSMA encourages private sector healthcare providers, especially specialists like obstetricians, gynecologists, physicians, and radiologists, to volunteer and provide free services at designated government health facilities on the 9th of every month.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

The entry age group for enrolment in the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) scheme is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40 years.

Age-specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary under the PM-SYM scheme. The contribution amount varies based on the age of the subscriber at the time of joining the scheme.

Each subscriber under the PM-SYM scheme shall receive a minimum pension of ₹3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.

Family pension is applicable only to the spouse of the subscriber, not to unmarried daughters

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The reservation will be effective after the census conducted after the commencement of this Bill has been published. Based on the census, delimitation will be undertaken to reserve seats for women.

Statement 2 is correct: The reservation will be provided for a period of 15 years. However, it shall continue till such date as determined by a law made by Parliament.

Statement 3 is correct: The Bill introduces Article 332A, which mandates the reservation of seats for women in every state Legislative Assembly. Additionally, one-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs must be allocated for women, and one-third of the total seats filled through direct elections to the Legislative Assemblies shall also be reserved for women

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement1 is incorrect: This is a joint military exercise between Indian and Sri Lankan armies.

Statement 2 is correct It commenced in Pune.

Statement 3 is correct The exercise includes synergising joint responses during counter-terrorist operations.

 Statement 4 is correct The Indian air force was a part of this exercise. Fifteen personnel from the IAF participated in the exercise, along with five personnel from the Sri Lankan Air Force.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by a higher court, such as the Supreme Court or High Courts, directing a lower court or tribunal to cease proceedings in a case that exceeds its jurisdiction or lacks jurisdiction altogether. This writ is typically used to prevent a lower court from continuing with a case that does not fall within its legal authority, ensuring that legal boundaries are respected and jurisdictional overreach is prevented.

Thus correct answer is (c)

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The recognition and declaration of any community as a Scheduled Tribe is not within the powers of the Governor of the State. This authority rests with the President of India. Under Article 342 of the Indian Constitution, the President may, after consultation with the Governor of a state, specify the tribes or tribal communities which shall be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that state or Union Territory.

Statement 2 is Correct: A community recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in one state may not necessarily be recognized as such in another state. The recognition of Scheduled Tribes is state-specific, and a tribe listed as a Scheduled Tribe in one state is not automatically considered a Scheduled Tribe in another state. This is because the criteria and conditions for recognition can vary across states based on regional contexts and historical factors.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The Annual Financial Statement, commonly referred to as the Budget, is laid before both Houses of Parliament by the Union Finance Minister, but it is not specifically done on behalf of the Prime Minister. The finance minister presents the budget on behalf of the government, as outlined in Article 112 of the Indian Constitution. There is no formal requirement for the Prime Minister's name to be associated with this act.

Statement 2 is Correct: According to Article 113(3) of the Indian Constitution, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. This ensures that financial proposals are under the scrutiny and approval of the executive before being placed in Parliament for consideration.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

The India Way" was published in 2020 and presents a perspective on India's foreign policy and strategic outlook.

"Why Bharat Matters" was published in 2021 and discusses various facets of India's importance on the global stage.

Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is an Indian diplomat and politician who has served as the External Affairs Minister of India.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Argentina has been in the news for its economic crisis, which has been ongoing for several years. The crisis is characterised by high inflation, a large public debt, and a history of economic instability.

The conflict in Sudan has escalated into a devastating war between the country’s regular military and a powerful paramilitary force, with grave consequences for the civilian population and the potential for further atrocities and humanitarian crises.

Turkey has not rescinded its membership to NATO. However, it has been in the news recently due to its opposition to Sweden’s bid to join the alliance

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Statement-I is correct: The Sumed pipeline, also known as the Suez-Mediterranean pipeline, is indeed a strategic route for transporting oil from the Persian Gulf (via the Red Sea) to the Mediterranean Sea. It provides an alternative route for oil shipments to Europe, bypassing the Suez Canal.

Statement-II is correct: This statement correctly describes the Sumed pipeline, which runs from the Ain Sukhna terminal on the Red Sea coast of Egypt to the Sidi Kerir terminal on the Mediterranean coast of Egypt.

Statement-3 correctly describes the Sumed pipeline's role in transporting Persian Gulf oil and natural gas to Europe. Statement-II accurately describes the geographical route of the Sumed pipeline, connecting the Red Sea (via the Gulf of Suez) with the Mediterranean Sea. However, Statement-II does not provide an explanation for Statement-I; instead, both statements independently describe different aspects of the Sumed pipeline.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The Red Sea region is characterized by arid and semi-arid climates, with extremely low precipitation levels. The area surrounding the Red Sea, including Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Sudan, and Eritrea, generally receives minimal rainfall throughout the year.

Statement 2 is correct: The Red Sea is mostly isolated from major river systems. the amount of freshwater entering the Red Sea from rivers is negligible compared to other seas. The Red Sea's primary source of water is through seawater inflow.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

According to Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) , Emissions that lead to high concentrations of SO2 generally also lead to the formation of other SOx. The largest sources of SO2 emissions are from fossil fuel combustion at power plants and other industrial facilities.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Four delimitation commissions

First Delimitation Commission: Constituted in 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952.

Second Delimitation Commission: Constituted in 1963 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1962.

Third Delimitation Commission: Constituted in 1973 under the Delimitation Act, 1972.

Fourth Delimitation Commission: Constituted in 2002 under the Delimitation Act, 2002.

These commissions are responsible for the periodic readjustment of electoral constituencies for the Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies based on changes in population distribution

Ans: (a)

Explanation

The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India was amended in accordance with the 71st amendment of the Indian Constitution. The inclusion of the following languages was the primary reason behind the enforcement of the 71st amendment of the Indian Constitution: Konkani, Nepali and Meitei (Manipuri).

Thus correct answer is (a)

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Only two pairs are correctly matched

 Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was associated with the Bharatiya Jana Sangh, and Jagjivan Ram was associated with Congress for Democracy.

However, C. Rajagopalachari was associated with the Swatantra Party, not the Socialist Party, and Acharya Narendra Dev was associated with the Socialist Party, not Swatantra Party

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement 1 is Correct: Part IX A of the Constitution of India deals with the municipalities (Urban Local Bodies). It was inserted by the 74th Amendment Act, 1992, and outlines the powers, composition, and responsibilities of urban local bodies.

Statement 2 is Correct: Emergency provisions are actually given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. This part deals with the provisions related to the Emergency (Article 352 to 360).

Statement 3 is Correct: Part XX of the Constitution deals with the amendment procedure of the Constitution (Article 368).

Thus correct answer is (d)

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.(entry number 81)

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.(entry number 81)

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The CDS acts as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee. The COSC includes the three Service Chiefs (Army, Navy, Air Force) and the CDS. The CDS chairs this committee, which facilitates joint manship and integration among the armed forces.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The CDS does not exercise direct military command over the three Service Chiefs. Each Service Chief retains operational command over their respective services. The role of the CDS is more about integration, joint planning, and providing strategic military advice rather than operational command.

Statement 3 is correct: The CDS serves as the principal military advisor to the Defence Minister on all tri-service matters. This includes advising on matters related to joint military operations, procurement, training, and other areas where integration and jointness among the services are crucial.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Operation Sadbhavana is a term used by the Indian Army to describe its efforts towards winning the hearts and minds of the local population in conflict-affected or remote areas. It focuses on humanitarian assistance, developmental activities, and fostering goodwill among the local communities.

The objective of Operation Sadbhavana is to create a positive environment by addressing the basic needs of the local population such as healthcare, education, infrastructure development, and socio-economic upliftment.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

The border between Canada and the United States is the longest international border in the world, stretching for approximately 8,891 kilometers (5,525 miles). This border is known for its peaceful relations and cooperation between the two countries.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: In the case of Lok Sabha, a study group of the house committee of privileges in 1997 recommended the constitution of an Ethics committee, but it could not be taken up by Lok sabha.

The Committee of Privileges finally recommended the constitution of an Ethics Committee during the 13th Lok Sabha.

The late Speaker, G M C Balayogi, constituted an ad hoc Ethics Committee in 2000, which became a permanent part of the House only in 2015.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Not only Members of the Lok Sabha but also any individual can make a complaint regarding the unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha to the Ethics Committee. The Ethics Committee can receive complaints from various sources, including members of the public, media reports, etc.

Statement 3 is correct: The Ethics Committee generally avoids taking up matters that are sub-judice (under judicial consideration).

Ans: (d)

Explanation

                                                                                                         was the first President (pro tem) of the Constituent Assembly of India. He served as the interim or provisional President until the permanent President, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, was elected to the position.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Government of India Act, 1935, proposed the establishment of an All India Federation which would have included both the British Indian provinces and the princely states. The federation was intended to have two levels of government: the federal government at the center and provincial governments in British Indian provinces.

Statement 2 is incorrect: According to the Government of India Act, 1935, defence and foreign affairs were reserved and remained under the control of the British Governor-General and his Executive Council, which operated independently of the federal legislature

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Bhasa was an ancient Indian playwright who is believed to have lived sometime between the 3rd century BCE and the 3rd century CE.

"Madhyama-vyayoga" is one of the plays attributed to Bhasa. It is a Sanskrit drama that narrates the story of a love triangle involving a king, a courtesan, and a young man.

Bhasa is known for his unique style and contribution to Sanskrit drama, and "Madhyama-vyayoga" is one of the surviving plays attributed to him.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Sanghabhuti is historically noted for his role in transmitting the Sarvastivada Vinaya, a significant Buddhist text related to monastic discipline, to China.

The Sarvastivada Vinaya is a set of rules and regulations governing the conduct of monks and nuns in the Sarvastivada tradition of Buddhism.

Sanghabhuti's commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya was influential in China and contributed to the understanding and practice of monastic discipline in Chinese Buddhism.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

As per UNESCO, World Heritage List , Shantiniketan and the Sacred Ensembles of Hoysalas were included in the list in 2023.

Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya (2002) and Rani ki Vav (2014) were inscribed earlier.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, which deals with the procedure for amending the Constitution, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

Addition: Parliament can add new provisions to the Constitution.

Variation: Parliament can change or alter existing provisions of the Constitution.

Repeal: Parliament can repeal (remove) existing provisions from the Constitution.

Thus, the correct answer is (d)

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Italy: Italy has been experiencing low birth rates and an ageing population for several years. It is one of the countries in Europe facing demographic challenges with a declining population.

Japan: Japan has one of the lowest birth rates in the world coupled with a rapidly ageing population. The country has been grappling with demographic issues such as a shrinking workforce and increased healthcare costs due to its ageing society.

South Korea: South Korea is also facing similar demographic challenges with low birth rates and an ageing population. The government has implemented various policies to encourage childbirth and address the implications of an ageing society.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct:

Statement 2 is correct: Article 110(1) specifies that a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and not in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

Statement 3 is correct: When a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha must return the Bill within 14 days, either with its recommendations or without any recommendations. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a Money Bill. It does not have the power to amend the Bill in a manner that includes provisions other than those related to matters specified in Article 110(1). The Lok Sabha may or may not accept the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Lok Sabha is not bound to accept any amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha to a Money Bill. It has the discretion to accept, reject, or modify these amendments.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Only 3 row is correctly matched

The ranks in the Indian Armed Forces across the Army, Air Force, and Navy are equivalent as follows:

Brigadier - Air Commodore - Commodore

Brigadier in the Army is equivalent to Air Commodore in the Air Force and Commodore in the Navy.

Major General - Air Vice Marshal - Rear Admiral

Major General in the Army is equivalent to Air Vice Marshal in the Air Force and Rear Admiral in the Navy.

Major - Squadron Leader - Lieutenant Commander

Major in the Army is equivalent to Squadron Leader in the Air Force and Lieutenant Commander in the Navy.

Lieutenant Colonel - Group Captain - Captain

Lieutenant Colonel in the Army is equivalent to Group Captain in the Air Force and Captain in the Navy.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

North Eastern Council (NEC) is under the administrative purview of the Ministry of Development of the North-Eastern Region (MDoNER).

NEC is not a constitutional body, but a statutory organization established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971, as amended in 2002.

It is the nodal agency for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region which consists of the eight States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.

The Council comprises Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members nominated by the President.

Thus correct answer is (d)

Ans: d

Explanation

This statement 1 is incorrect: The US has never defaulted on its debt obligations, and US Treasury Bonds are considered one of the safest investments globally precisely because they are backed by the full faith and credit of the US government. In the event of any financial distress, the US government has always prioritized debt repayment, making default extremely unlikely. Therefore, holders of US Treasury Bonds have historically received their payments as scheduled.

Statement 2 is correct: US Government debt, including Treasury Bonds, is not backed by specific assets such as gold or land. Instead, it is backed by the creditworthiness of the US government itself. Investors trust that the US government will honor its debt obligations because of its ability to collect taxes, print money, and maintain a stable economy. This trust in the government's ability and willingness to repay its debt is what supports the value of US Treasury securities.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Syndicated lending involves multiple banks or financial institutions coming together to provide funds to a borrower. By spreading the loan amount across several lenders, the risk of default by the borrower is diversified among them. Each lender takes a portion of the total loan, thereby reducing their individual exposure to the borrower's credit risk.

Statement II is incorrect: Syndicated loans can indeed be structured as either a fixed amount/lump sum of funds or as a credit line (revolving credit facility). In a fixed amount syndicated loan, the borrower receives a one-time lump sum amount which they repay over a specified period. In a credit line syndicated loan, the borrower has access to a predetermined credit limit and can draw funds as needed, up to the limit, and repay based on their usage.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. The digital rupee is a digital version of the Indian rupee issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), which is the central bank of India. As a sovereign currency, it is issued and regulated by the RBI in line with its monetary policy objectives.

Statement 2 is correct. Just like physical currency (cash), the digital rupee issued by the RBI would appear as a liability on its balance sheet. This is because the RBI is obligated to redeem the digital rupees for cash or commercial bank money upon demand

Statement 3 is incorrect. The design of the digital rupee does not inherently provide insurance against inflation. Inflation is managed through the RBI's monetary policy tools, including interest rates, open market operations, reserve requirements, etc. The digital rupee, like physical currency, is subject to the effects of inflation based on broader economic factors.

Statement 4 is correct. The digital rupee, like physical currency, would be convertible against commercial bank money (digital deposits) and cash. Holders of digital rupees should be able to exchange them for other forms of money (bank deposits or cash) at par value.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Shakyamuni: This epithet means "Sage of the Shakya clan." It emphasizes his birth in the Shakya clan as Siddhartha Gautama before he attained enlightenment.

Tathagata: This term is used in Buddhist literature to refer to Gautama Buddha. It means "One who has thus come" or "One who has thus gone." It denotes his realization of the ultimate truth and his attainment of enlightenment.

Option (a) is incorrect because epithet Nayaputta is associated with Mahavir

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Row I is incorrectly matched. Chandraketugarh is a site in eastern India which is famous for Terracotta seals with Brahmi inscriptions.

Row II is correctly matched. Inamgaon is a famous chalcolithic site located in the state of Maharashtra famous for being known as part of Jorwe culture.

Row III is correctly matched. Mangadu is a megalithic site located in the state of Kerala.

Salihundam is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh. It is famous for historical monasteries.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Krishnadevaraya was a prominent ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire during the 16th century (reigned from 1509 to 1529).

He was known for his military campaigns and patronage of arts and literature.

During his reign, the Portuguese sought permission to establish a fort at Bhatkal, which was strategically located for trade and naval activities along the western coast of India.

Krishnadevaraya granted permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal, thereby allowing them to strengthen their presence in the region and engage in trade activities.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ryotwari Settlement was introduced by Thomas Munro and not by Cornwallis. Under Ryotwari system, individual peasants (ryots) were directly responsible for paying revenue to the British government. There was no provision for exemption from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities. The ryots bore the full burden of revenue payment regardless of crop outcomes.

Statement 2 is correct. Permanent settlement which was introduced by lord Cornwallis was made with Zamindars of Bengal. One of the negative features of this settlement was the sunset clause, under which if the Zamindar fails to pay the land revenue by the end of the day, his Zamindari would be auctioned.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The term ‘parables’ refers to short stories. Upanishads is a part of Vedic texts dealing with metaphysical matters that are philosophical ideas dealing with God and soul (parmaatma and aatma respectively)

Statement 2 is correct: The Upanishads are ancient texts that are considered part of the Vedas and are among the earliest philosophical and spiritual texts in Hinduism. They were composed between 800 BCE to 400 BCE, making them older than the Puranas, which were composed later, generally from around 3rd century BCE to 16th century CE.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India is indeed a member of the International Grains Council (IGC). The IGC is an intergovernmental organization that deals with grains, including wheat and rice, among its member countries.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Membership in the International Grains Council is not a requirement for countries to export or import rice and wheat. The IGC facilitates international cooperation and information exchange on grains but does not have regulatory authority over trade in grains among countries.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Gujarat’s traditional dance form ‘Garba’ has been included in the list of Intangible Cultural Heritage by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).

The popular dance form is the 15th cultural item from India to make it to the UNESCO list. Kolkata’s Durga Puja was the last one added two years ago.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Total fertility rate (TFR) represents the average number of live births that a woman would have during her reproductive years, usually considered to be ages 15-49. It is a key demographic indicator used to understand fertility patterns within a population.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window is primarily accessed by scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) in India. NBFCs do not have direct access to the LAF window. They typically manage their liquidity through other mechanisms such as market borrowings, commercial paper issuances, etc.

Statement 2 is correct: Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs), now known as Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs), are permitted to invest in Government Securities (G-Secs) under the regulatory framework set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) .They play a significant role in the Indian debt market.

Statement 3 is correct: In India, exchanges such as the National Stock Exchange (NSE) and Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) offer separate trading platforms for debt instruments. These platforms allow trading in various debt securities, including corporate bonds, government securities, and other debt instruments.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Insurance companies in India are permitted to invest in both Corporate Bonds and Government Securities. They play a significant role in the debt market as institutional investors, contributing to the overall liquidity and stability of the market.

Statement 2 is correct: Pension funds in India, such as the Employees' Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) and the National Pension System (NPS), are also allowed to invest in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities. These investments are crucial for pension funds to generate returns while maintaining the safety and liquidity required for long-term obligations to retirees.

Statement 3 is correct: Retail investors, which include individual investors, are permitted to invest in Corporate Bonds through the retail issuance channels offered by companies or through mutual funds that invest in bonds. Government Securities (G-Secs) are also accessible to retail investors through various channels, including direct participation in government bond auctions, exchange-traded funds (ETFs), and mutual funds specializing in government bonds.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: ETFs are investment funds that are traded on stock exchanges, much like stocks. They hold assets such as stocks, commodities, or bonds and generally operate with an arbitrage mechanism designed to keep the trading close to its net asset value (NAV). ETFs are considered financial instruments because they represent a form of investment vehicle traded in financial markets.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Motor vehicles, such as cars and trucks, are not typically considered financial instruments. They are physical assets used primarily for transportation purposes rather than for financial investment or trading.

Statement3 is correct: A currency swap is a financial derivative contract that involves the exchange of interest and sometimes principal in one currency for the same in another currency. Currency swaps are used to hedge against foreign exchange rate fluctuations or to obtain cheaper debt in foreign currencies. They are widely used in financial markets and are considered financial instruments.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Storage of agricultural produce: This activity is associated with the Tertiary sector, which involves storage and distribution services. Therefore, Pair 1 is not matched correctly.

Dairy farm: Dairy farming involves the primary production of milk and other dairy products from livestock. Hence, it belongs to the Primary sector. Pair 2 is matched correctly.

Mineral exploration: Mineral exploration is part of the process of finding commercially viable mineral deposits and is a part of the Primary sector, which involves extraction and production of natural resources. Pair 3 is matched incorrectly.

Weaving cloth:Weaving cloth involves the manufacturing of textile products and is a part of the Secondary sector, which includes industrial production. Pair 4 is matched correctly.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

The production of Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) focuses on utilizing feedstocks that are renewable and sustainable, thereby reducing greenhouse gas emissions compared to conventional fossil fuels.

Agricultural residues: These are leftover materials from agricultural activities, such as stalks, husks, and straw. They can be converted into biofuels through processes like biochemical conversion (e.g., fer mentation) or thermochemical conversion (e.g., pyrolysis).

Corn grain: Corn grain can be used to produce bioethanol, which is a type of biofuel. However, for aviation fuel, corn grain can be processed into biobutanol or can undergo further conversion processes to potentially contribute to SAF production.

Wastewater treatment sludge: This refers to the solid residual material generated during wastewater treatment processes. It contains organic matter that can be converted into biogas through anaerobic digestion. Biogas can then be processed into biofuels, including SAF.

Mill waste: This can include various types of waste from industrial processes, such as wood waste, pulp waste, or other by-products from milling operations. These can often be used as feedstocks for biofuel production.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Farmer's plough: A farmer's plough is used in agricultural activities and is typically considered a part of Fixed capital. Fixed capital refers to durable goods or means of production that are used repeatedly in production processes over extended periods.

Computer: A computer is used for various purposes, including in businesses and industries, and is a classic example of Fixed capital. It is a durable asset used for performing tasks efficiently over an extended period.

Yarn used by the weaver: Yarn used by a weaver is considered a part of Working capital. Working capital includes goods that are consumed or transformed in the production process and are not retained in the same form as part of the fixed assets.

Petrol : Floating capital: Capital goods which are capable of having some alternative uses are called floating capital. For e.g. electricity, fuel, transport vehicles, etc are the floating capital which can be used anywhere.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Metaverse: The term "metaverse" refers to a collective virtual shared space, created by the convergence of virtually enhanced physical reality and physically persistent virtual reality. In the metaverse, users can interact with each other and digital objects, often using avatars. It is envisioned as an interconnected network of virtual worlds, allowing for seamless interaction and collaboration across different platforms and environments.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect: The RBI imposes minimum capital requirements for foreign banks establishing wholly owned subsidiaries in India. These requirements are designed to ensure that the subsidiaries have adequate capital to support their operations and manage risks effectively in the Indian banking environment.

Statement 2 is correct: The RBI mandates that at least 50% of the board of directors of wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India must consist of Indian nationals. This requirement is aimed at ensuring local representation and governance in the operations of these subsidiaries.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: As per the Companies Act, 2013, and the CSR Rules, expenditures that benefit only the company directly or its employees, such as employee welfare expenses, are explicitly excluded from being considered as CSR activities. CSR activities should primarily benefit society at large and not just the company or its employees.

Statement 2 is incorrect: CSR rules in India mandate that certain classes of companies meeting specific criteria must spend at least 2% of their average net profits made during the three immediately preceding financial years on CSR activities. This spending requirement is mandatory for eligible companies falling under the purview of the Companies Act, 2013

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect: RTGs (Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators) are not miniature fission reactors. Instead, they generate electricity using the heat produced by the decay of a radioactive isotope, typically Plutonium-238 or Uranium-238. They do not involve nuclear fission reactions as in traditional nuclear reactors.

Statement II is correct. RTGs have been used by space agencies like NASA to provide power to spacecraft and satellites operating in environments where solar power may not be practical or feasible, such as missions to outer planets or deep space where sunlight is weak or nonexistent.

Statement III is correct. Plutonium-238 is produced as a by-product of nuclear reactor operations, specifically in reactors designed to produce it. It has been used in RTGs because of its high heat output through radioactive decay, which can be converted into electricity through thermoelectric processes.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement-I is incorrect: In reality, giant stars generally have shorter lifespans compared to dwarf stars. Giant stars are larger and more massive than dwarf stars, but they burn through their nuclear fuel at a much faster rate due to their higher rate of nuclear reactions and greater luminosity. As a result, they have shorter lifespans in astronomical terms.

Statement-II is correct: Giant stars, due to their larger size and higher mass, have stronger gravitational pressures in their cores. This leads to higher temperatures and pressures, which in turn results in faster nuclear reactions compared to dwarf stars. This increased rate of nuclear fusion contributes to the higher luminosity and shorter lifespan of giant stars.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Nitric Oxide (NO): Nitric oxide is a molecule synthesized in various cells of the human body, primarily by endothelial cells lining the blood vessels. It acts as a vasodilator, meaning it relaxes the smooth muscles of blood vessels, causing them to dilate. This dilation increases blood flow and helps regulate blood pressure. Nitric oxide also plays a crucial role in numerous physiological processes, including immune response, neurotransmission, and the regulation of cell death

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect: Radars are not typically used for identifying narcotics. Detection of narcotics typically involves methods such as X-ray scanning, sniffer dogs, chemical analysis, and visual inspections. Radars are not suitable for detecting narcotics because they are designed for detecting objects based on reflected radio waves, which are not specific to narcotics detection.

Statement II is correct: Radars are commonly used for monitoring precipitation, such as rainfall and snowfall. Weather radars emit radio waves that bounce off precipitation particles (like raindrops or snowflakes) and return to the radar receiver. By analyzing the reflected signals, meteorologists can determine the location, intensity, and movement of precipitation in real-time.

Statement III is correct: Radars can be used to track the migrations of animals, particularly birds. Avian radar systems are designed to detect and track the movements of birds during migration. These radars use similar principles to weather radars but are optimized to detect the specific radar cross-sections of birds and distinguish them from weather phenomena.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Rafale: The Dassault Rafale is a 4.5th generation multirole fighter aircraft. It is known for its versatility, advanced avionics, and weapon systems, but it does not meet all the criteria of a 5th generation fighter.

MiG-29: The Mikoyan MiG-29 is also a 4th generation fighter aircraft. It is a highly maneuverable air superiority fighter known for its agility and combat effectiveness, but it lacks the advanced stealth and sensor fusion capabilities of a 5th generation fighter.

Tejas MK-1: The HAL Tejas MK-1 is an indigenous 4th generation lightweight multirole fighter developed by India. It is designed for air superiority and ground attack missions, but similar to the Rafale and MiG-29, it does not qualify as a 5th generation fighter

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement I is correct: Hydrogels are widely used in biomedical applications, particularly for controlled drug delivery systems. Hydrogels can absorb and retain large amounts of water while maintaining their structural integrity. They can be engineered to release drugs in a controlled manner over time, providing sustained release and improving therapeutic outcomes.

Statement II is correct: Hydrogels can be used in the development of advanced materials for cooling systems, including mobile air-conditioning. These hydrogels can absorb and release water vapor in response to changes in temperature and humidity, providing efficient and sustainable cooling solutions.

Statement III is correct: Hydrogels are also used in industrial applications, including the preparation of specialized lubricants. Hydrogel-based lubricants can provide enhanced lubrication properties, reduce friction, and improve performance under various operating conditions.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) use hydrogen as their fuel source and generate electricity through a chemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen in the fuel cell stack. This reaction produces electricity to power the vehicle and the only by-product is water vapour (H2O)

Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) use hydrogen as their fuel source and generate electricity through a chemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen in the fuel cell stack. This reaction produces electricity to power the vehicle and the only by-product is water vapour (H2O)

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Pumped-storage hydropower is a method of storing energy by using two water reservoirs at different elevations. During times when electricity demand is low (off-peak), excess electricity from the grid is used to pump water from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir. Then, during times of high electricity demand (peak), the stored water is released back down through turbines to generate electricity.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) are advanced wastewater treatment technologies that combine biological treatment processes (bioreactors) with membrane filtration. In MBR systems, microorganisms biologically break down organic matter and pollutants in wastewater. The key component of MBRs is the membrane filtration system, which separates treated water from solids (biomass) in the bioreactor.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

The money market in India facilitates short-term borrowing and lending of funds. It deals with instruments that have a maturity period of up to one year.

CBLO (Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations) is one such instrument traded in the money market. It allows entities to borrow or lend funds with government securities as collateral.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Cicada: Cicadas are large, often noisy insects belonging to the order Hemiptera. They are known for their distinctive songs produced by vibrating membranes on their abdomens.

Froghopper: Froghoppers, also known as spittlebugs, belong to the superfamily Cercopoidea within the order Hemiptera. They are named for their jumping ability, which is similar to that of frogs. Froghoppers are small insects that feed on plant sap and are known for the protective foam nests they create on plants as nymphs.

Pond skater: Pond skaters, or water striders, are insects belonging to the family Gerridae within the order Hemiptera. They are adapted to living on the surface of freshwater bodies such as ponds and streams.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Statement-I is correct: Chewing gums, especially those that contain synthetic polymers like plastic in their gum base, do contribute to environmental pollution. When gum is discarded improperly, it can persist in the environment for a long time due to its synthetic nature, leading to littering issues in streets, parks, and other public spaces.

Statement-II is also correct: Traditional chewing gums often use synthetic polymers such as polyethylene, polyvinyl acetate, or polyisobutylene as the gum base. These polymers are not biodegradable and can remain in the environment for years after disposal, contributing to plastic pollution.

Furthermore, Statement-II logically supports Statement-I because the presence of plastic in chewing gums explains why they contribute to environmental pollution when improperly disposed of it.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Indri is a type of lemur found naturally in Madagascar, not Brazil.

Elk is found naturally in North America and parts of Eurasia, not Indonesia.

Bonobo is a species of great ape found naturally in the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. The World Toilet Organization is an NGO and not a part of the United Nations system. It is a global non-profit organization focused on improving sanitation and toilet conditions worldwide.

Statement 2 is correct. The World Toilet Organization organizes events like the World Toilet Summit and promotes observances such as World Toilet Day to raise awareness and inspire actions to address sanitation challenges globally. The World Toilet College is also an initiative aimed at improving sanitation standards through training and education.

Statement 3 is incorrect While the WTO is involved in advocacy and awareness programs to improve sanitation, it does not primarily focus on granting funds to countries for achieving specific goals like ending open defecation. Its activities are more centered around advocacy, awareness campaigns, and initiatives to improve sanitation practices globally

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Lions do not have a specific breeding season; instead, they can reproduce throughout the year. Females in a pride may come into estrus at different times, and mating can occur year-round.

Statement 2 is correct. Unlike lions, tigers, leopards, and jaguars, which are known for their roaring abilities, cheetahs cannot roar. Instead, they produce a variety of vocalizations including purrs, chirps, growls, and hisses.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Male leopards do indeed mark their territories using scent markings, just like male lions. They use urine and claw scraping on trees to define and defend their territories from other males.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

100 Million Farmers is a platform supporting private and public leaders to position food and farmers as central pillars on the global climate and nature agenda, and accelerate collective action to scale climate-and nature-friendly agricultural practices.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Battery storage: Battery storage systems are considered DERs because they can store electricity generated from various sources (such as solar or wind) and discharge it when needed. They can be deployed at various scales, from residential to utility-scale, and contribute to balancing electricity supply and demand.

Biomass generators: Biomass generators use organic materials (biomass) to produce electricity through combustion or other conversion processes. They can be decentralized and distributed across different locations, making them a form of DER that contributes to renewable energy generation.

Fuel cells: Fuel cells convert chemical energy directly into electricity through electrochemical reactions, often using hydrogen as a fuel source. They can be deployed as distributed generation units, providing on-site electricity generation with high efficiency and low emissions.

Rooftop solar photovoltaic units: Rooftop solar photovoltaic (PV) units generate electricity from sunlight using solar panels installed on rooftops of buildings or homes. They are a classic example of distributed energy resources, as they generate electricity locally and can be installed in various locations, reducing transmission losses and enhancing grid resilience.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Butterflies: While most butterflies are not poisonous, there are some species that have evolved to be toxic to predators. These butterflies often sequester toxins from the plants they consume during their larval stages. Examples include butterflies from families like Papilionidae (e.g., Swallowtails) and Nymphalidae (e.g., Monarchs and Blue Morphos).

Fish: Many species of fish, especially in marine environments, can be poisonous due to the toxins they accumulate from their diet or from symbiotic relationships with toxic organisms like certain algae or bacteria. Examples include pufferfish (which contain tetrodotoxin), certain species of grouper, and some species of coral reef fish.

Frogs: Frogs are well-known for having toxic species, particularly among the family Dendrobatidae (poison dart frogs). These frogs secrete potent toxins through their skin, which serves as a defense mechanism against predators. The toxins can vary from alkaloids to peptides, and they are often brightly colored to signal their toxicity.

Answer: (c)

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Cashew: Cashew (Anacardium occidentale) is native to northeastern Brazil. It was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century.

Papaya: Papaya (Carica papaya) is believed to be native to southern Mexico and neighboring Central America. It was introduced to India and other tropical regions around the world where it is now widely cultivated. Like cashew, papaya is not native to India.

Red sanders: Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus), also known as Red Sanderswood or Rakta Chandana, is native to the southern Eastern Ghats mountain range in India. It is known for its valuable red wood and has been historically traded and used in various cultural and medicinal practices in India.

Explanation

A Greenfield project refers to the construction of new infrastructure on unused land, typically from scratch, without needing to remodel or demolish any existing structures

Donyi Polo Airport: Located in Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh, Donyi Polo Airport was constructed as a Greenfield project..

Kushinagar International Airport: Kushinagar International Airport in Uttar Pradesh was also developed as a Greenfield project. This airport was specifically built to facilitate international pilgrimage traffic to the Buddhist pilgrimage site of Kushinagar.

Vijayawada International Airport: Vijayawada International Airport in Andhra Pradesh underwent significant expansion and upgrade, but it was not entirely a Greenfield project. It involved upgrading the existing airport infrastructure to international standards rather than starting from completely unused land.

Ans: (a)

Explain

Statement I is correct: Water vapor is indeed a gas in the atmosphere, and its concentration decreases with altitude. As altitude increases, the temperature generally decreases, which reduces the capacity of the air to hold water vapor. Therefore, water vapor content tends to decrease with increasing altitude.

Statement II is incorrect: Areas with warmer temperatures and higher humidity levels (such as tropical regions) can have higher concentrations of water vapor compared to colder regions like the poles. The percentage of water vapor in the atmosphere is not maximum at the poles

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Marine west coast climate

The temperature of marine west coast ecosystems is very mild and does not fluctuate greatly. There are only two seasons, summer and winter. The average low is 30 degrees Fahrenheit in winter months and can reach 72 degrees F in summer months.

This region is so humid because it can receive 50-250 cm of rain in a year. Example -Portland, Oregon: it's known for being wet and generally very mild.

However, it can get rain 150 of 365 days a year, common in marine west coast climates. This region is known for its wet, humid air.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: The Coriolis force does indeed increase with an increase in wind velocity.

Statement 2 is correct: The Coriolis force is strongest at the poles and decreases to zero at the equator. At the poles, where the rotational speed of the Earth is relatively small, the Coriolis force causes a significant deflection of moving objects. Near the equator, where the rotational speed of the Earth is highest, the Coriolis force becomes negligible and effectively absent

Ans: (d)

Explanation

On June 21st, the Tropic of Cancer experiences more than 12 hours of sunlight. This is because the Sun's rays are directly overhead at noon at this latitude during the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere.

On June 21st, the Arctic Circle experiences more than 12 hours of sunlight, often referred to as a period of midnight sun. This is because the Sun does not set below the horizon, resulting in continuous daylight for 24 hours or more depending on how far north you are from the Arctic Circle.

Thus , correct answer is (d)

Ans: (c)

Explanation

The Congo Basin, located in Central Africa, contains vast tropical peatlands, especially in countries like the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) and Republic of the Congo.

 The Congo Basin's peatlands are estimated to hold about three years' worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels, highlighting their critical role in global climate regulation

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are synthetic chemicals used in various consumer products for their water and grease resistance properties.

Statement I is correct: PFAS are indeed widespread contaminants that have been detected in drinking water sources, various food items (due to food packaging materials), and even in the environment. Their widespread use and persistence have led to global contamination of these substances.

Statement II is correct: PFAS are known for their persistence in the environment. They are highly resistant to degradation due to their strong carbon-fluorine bonds. This resistance to breakdown in natural processes contributes to their long-term presence in the environment and their ability to bioaccumulate in living organisms.

Statement III is correct: Due to their persistence, PFAS can accumulate in organisms over time, a process known as bioaccumulation. Once accumulated, PFAS can biomagnify through food chains, potentially reaching higher concentrations in top predators compared to lower trophic levels.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Parasitoid species are organisms that lay their eggs on or inside another organism (the host), ultimately leading to the death of the host as the parasitoid larvae develop.

Carabid beetles: Carabid beetles are predatory insects that do not typically have parasitoid species associated with them. They hunt and consume other invertebrates but are not known for being hosts to parasitoids.

Centipedes: Centipedes are predatory arthropods that also do not typically host parasitoid species. They hunt and feed on various smaller invertebrates but do not exhibit parasitoid behavior.

Flies: Flies (order Diptera) include many species that can be hosts to parasitoid species. For example, various species of parasitic wasps (e.g., Tachinidae, Ichneumonidae) lay their eggs on or inside fly hosts, where the parasitoid larvae develop.

Termites: Termites are social insects that are not typically hosts for parasitoid species. They primarily feed on wood and plant materials within their colonies and are not known for being parasitized by other organisms.

Wasps: Wasps (order Hymenoptera) include many species that are parasitoids themselves. Examples include ichneumon wasps and braconid wasps, which lay their eggs on or inside other insects (including flies) as hosts for their larvae.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

All three plants listed — Groundnut (peanut), Horse-gram (horse gram), and Soybean — belong to the pea family, scientifically known as Fabaceae or Leguminosae. This family is characterized by plants that typically produce fruits in the form of pods.

Groundnut (Peanut): Arachis hypogaea belongs to the Fabaceae family. It is known for its edible seeds that develop underground.

Horse-gram: Macrotyloma uniflorum, commonly known as horse gram, is also a member of the Fabaceae family. It is cultivated for its seeds, which are used as a food crop in various regions.

Soybean: Glycine max is another member of the Fabaceae family. It is a major crop grown for its edible beans, which are high in protein and oil content.

Fabaceae is a large family of flowering plants, commonly known as legumes, which includes many important agricultural crops due to their ability to fix nitrogen in the soil and their nutritional value.

Therefore, all three plants listed in the question — Groundnut, Horse-gram, and Soybean — belong to the pea family (Fabaceae or Leguminosae).

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Statement I is correct: In India, the Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus giganteus) is indeed classified as vermin under Schedule V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. This classification allows for certain management measures to control its population in specific circumstances, primarily due to perceived agricultural damage.

Statement-II is correct: The Indian Flying Fox is a frugivorous bat, meaning it primarily feeds on fruits, nectar, and flowers. It does not consume blood; that behavior is typically associated with vampire bats, which are not found in India.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Statement-I is incorrect: While incoming solar radiation (shortwave radiation) heats the Earth's surface directly, a significant portion of the atmosphere's heating actually comes from the absorption of longwave radiation (terrestrial radiation) emitted by the Earth's surface. The atmosphere absorbs some of this outgoing longwave radiation, which contributes to its heating

Statement-II is correct: Greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide, water vapour, methane, and others have the ability to absorb and re-emit longwave radiation (infrared radiation). This absorption of longwave radiation by greenhouse gases is crucial in the greenhouse effect, where they trap some of the heat energy and keep the Earth's surface warmer than it would be otherwise.

Answer: (a)

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Statement-I is correct: The troposphere, which is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere where most weather occurs, is thicker at the equator compared to the poles. This is primarily due to the warmer temperatures at the equator, which lead to greater vertical expansion of the atmosphere.

Statement-II is also correct: Near the equator, the Sun's energy is more concentrated, leading to intense heating of the Earth's surface. This heating creates strong upward convection currents (also known as convectional currents) where warm air rises rapidly to high altitudes. These convection currents transport heat energy vertically through the troposphere, contributing to the thicker troposphere observed at the equator.

Ans: (d)

Explanation

Pyroclastic Debris: Pyroclastic debris refers to a type of material ejected during volcanic eruptions. It consists of fragments ranging in size from fine ash to large blocks and bombs. Pyroclastic debris is formed when magma is violently expelled from a volcano, and it solidifies into various sizes and shapes as it cools rapidly in the air.

Ash and dust: Volcanic eruptions produce fine ash particles and dust that are carried high into the atmosphere. These particles can travel long distances and affect weather patterns and air quality.

Nitrogen: While nitrogen itself is not typically a direct product of volcanic eruptions, volcanic activity can release gases that include nitrogen compounds. These gases can contribute to the formation of aerosols and other atmospheric effects.

Sulphur compounds: Volcanic eruptions release sulphur dioxide (SO2) and other sulphur compounds into the atmosphere. These compounds can form sulphur aerosols and contribute to atmospheric cooling and acid rain when they react with water vapour.

Ans: (c)

Explanation

Côte d’Ivoire (Ivory Coast) and Ghana are the top two cocoa-producing countries globally.

These countries have favourable climates and soil conditions for cocoa cultivation, and their economies heavily rely on cocoa production and export.

Together, they account for a significant majority of the world’s cocoa supply.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Statement-I is correct: Rainfall contributes to weathering processes in several ways. It physically erodes rocks and minerals through the action of raindrops and running water. Additionally, rainwater can chemically weather minerals by dissolving them or reacting with them when it contains acidic components.

Statement-II is correct : Rainwater naturally absorbs carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere as it falls through the air. This dissolved CO2 forms carbonic acid (H2CO3) in rainwater, which can enhance chemical weathering of minerals.

Statement-III is correct: Rain is due to condensation of water droplets in the atmosphere. It does not contain any dissolved salts like ordinary water. Therefore rain water can dissolve more amount of oxygen than ordinary water. Moreover rain water is in contact with atmospheric air. Hence, it contains more percentae of oxygen.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Statement-I is correct: Rainfall contributes to weathering processes in several ways. It physically erodes rocks and minerals through the action of raindrops and running water. Additionally, rainwater can chemically weather minerals by dissolving them or reacting with them when it contains acidic components.

Statement-II is correct : Rainwater naturally absorbs carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere as it falls through the air. This dissolved CO2 forms carbonic acid (H2CO3) in rainwater, which can enhance chemical weathering of minerals.

Statement-III is correct: Rain is due to condensation of water droplets in the atmosphere. It does not contain any dissolved salts like ordinary water. Therefore rain water can dissolve more amount of oxygen than ordinary water. Moreover rain water is in contact with atmospheric air. Hence, it contains more percentae of oxygen.

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Germany and Norway

Ans: (a)

Explanation

Hundru Falls: Location: Ranchi district, Chotanagpur region, Jharkhand, On Subarnarekha river

The famous Jog Falls is in Karnataka state. Jog Falls is also known as Gersoppa fall. Jog Falls was formed by the Sharavati river.

Dhuandhar fall in Jabalpur which lies in Mahakoshal region

Ans: (b)

Explanation

Row I is incorrect. The Vosges Mountains are located in eastern France, not in Central Asia. Additionally, the Vosges are an example of block mountains, not fold mountains. Row II is incorrect. The Alps are indeed located in Europe, but they are an example of fold mountains, not block mountains.

Row III is correct. The Appalachian Mountains are located in eastern North America and are an example of old fold mountains.

Row IV is correct. The Andes Mountains run along the western coast of South America and are an example of young fold mountains